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"Evil" is among us

August 19, 2004

"Evil" walks among us. "Evil" is to be found in all varieties of public discourse, as much in secular-minded Europe as in God-fearing Red States. That "evil" is to be found at Hobson's Choice, should come as no surprise. "Evil" is actually all over the place.

Readers will at once see a gimmick here. Why the quotes? Are they scare-quotes? No, they are not. "Evil" is a term that has been retired from secular discourse, for understandable reasons: the use of the word smacks of religiosity. On 8 March 1983, Pres. Ronald Reagan made the following speech to the National Association of Evangelicals:

It was C.S. Lewis who, in his unforgettable Screwtape Letters, wrote: "The greatest evil is not done now in those sordid 'dens of rime' that Dickens loved to paint. It is not even done in concentration camps and labor camps. In those we see its final result. But it is conceived and ordered [...] in [...] offices, by quiet men with white collars and cut fingernails and smooth-shaven cheeks who do not need to raise their voice."

[...] Because these "quiet men" do not "raise their voices," [..] because, like other dictators before them, they're always making "their final territorial demand," some would have us accept them as their word and accommodate ourselves to their aggressive impulses. But if history teaches anything, it teaches that simpleminded appeasement or wishful thinking about our adversaries is folly. [...] So, in your discussions of the nuclear freeze proposals, I urge you to beware the temptation of pride—the temptation of blithely declaring yourselves above it all and label both sides equally at fault, to ignore the facts of history and the aggressive impulses of an evil empire, to simply call the arms race a giant misunderstanding and thereby remove yourself from the struggle between right and wrong and good and evil.
[emphasis added—JRM]

The speech urges the clergy listening to regard every adversary the US government decides to confront as Adolf Hitler ("final territorial demand"), and regard calls for a nuclear freeze as "defeatist," appeasing evil. The speech was extremely effective; a lot of the condemnation it received at the hands of critics missed the mark. Reagan's allusion to a sense of good and evil was extremely appealing; his appeals to historical verities a familiar conversational tactic, usually invoked by people whose knowledge of history stops emphatically with what they learned in the fourth grade.1 It obscures the fact that he's talking about his desire to threaten the world with extermination at the hands of missiles, if he doesn't get his way.

The use of the term "evil" is very offensive with most secular-minded people; ever since, the term "evil empire" has been used to lash Reagan, almost as if it was the worst thing he ever did—characterize America's Cold War adversary as an "evil empire." This strikes me as a bit odd, since many leftists have been pretty reliable about characterizing the USA as "imperialist" (as an existential attribute of our nation) and, if not "evil," certainly possessing the features thereof. In fact, part of the difficulty of writing about imperialism is precisely this—the term has become associated with a narrowly anti-US jacobinism with which I had absolutely no desire to be associated. So I wonder, what do we mean by "evil," why does it have a strong stigma as a concept, and why do we still use the word despite the embarrassment it causes?

In Romance languages like Spanish, "evil" is rendered malo, which also means simply, "bad." "If I say I don't want to donate, does that make me a bad person?" would be an example of this correspondence in English. Yet "evil" and "bad" have very different connotations in English. "This is a bad idea" versus "this is an evil idea." Compare "a bad policy" to "an evil policy." Merriam-Webster defines evil as "morally reprehensible; SINFUL, WICKED; arising from actual or imputed bad character or conduct." When Reagan referred to the Soviet Union as an "evil empire," he was evidently implying that Soviet designs on the West, or on the 3rd World, were morally reprehensible; he was imputing a bad character to the USSR. Doesn't this sound like Dr Helen Caldicott or Ziauddin Sardar characterizing the USA? While couching his condemnation of the entire population in anthropological language, Mr. Sardar most assuredly does characterize the USA as cohesive, malevolent, driven by reprehensible motives, and genetically wicked. His rants are not so much excessive, as pointless; if Americans are moral monsters by virtue of the conquest of the continent from indigenous peoples, no amount of repentence is going to spare us his condemnation. His moral universe, like those who think like him, is crude: the atom of moral agency is the nation; America is, in his eyes, a single entity whose malice is taken as read.

This isn't a tirade against either Dr Caldicott nor Mr. Sardar, who represent inevitable byproducts anyway. It is worth noting that they are randomly chosen examples of writers who have found their secularized version of "America is evil" has found a receptive audience. I wish it didn't, but it has. Yet they avoid using the term "evil." I would imagine it's because it would expose them to the charge of being a reflection of the sovereign devil of their cosmos: simple-minded, sanctimonious moralizers, possessing every last one of the attributes of character they condemn. One of the most hackneyed cliches is that Americans are religious fanatics (e.g., BBC), and hence, simple-minded, warlike, fanatical. If I were to paraphrase Mr. Webb's own opinions using the term "evil," I expect he would object strenuously. Yet he's attributing policies Britons object to, to the national character of Americans. In fact, that's the ideologogical narrative of the BBC: British foreign policy is [sometimes] bad because of stochastic human clumsiness; American foreign policy is bad [now] because Americans are innately simple-minded fanatics, incapable of subtle reasoning. We're evil because we believe in evil.

But what is evil? Why don't I calm down and accept objective wording? My definition of evil is an attempt to capture the connotation. I would say that when we speak of an evil act, we are talking about doing a destructive or unpleasant thing, for another motive which is reprehensible. Does this distinction sound weird?

Suppose I seized power in a coup; I might use my police powers to enforce legislation. Suppose the reader knows only this much; she can't be sure if I'm evil, just that I have power and used it. Now, suppose she discovers the legislation was radical environmental remediation. At my trial, after my ouster, I demonstrate to the court that only my BTU tax and rebate scheme could protect the USA from economic meltdown and the world from environmental havoc. What I did was bad, but my motives were benevolent.

Now, suppose it turns out my motives were to seize the oil resources of the Persian Gulf for control of my cronies; had I achieved the same through constitutional means, my ultimate motive would be reprensible. But in this counterfactual, in either case I used extralegal methods to silence my opponents. If I use these methods to save the world from environmental disaster, most onlookers are going to be conflicted when they pass judgment. But if I use these reprehensible methods for a goal which is also reprehensible in another way, then most people will judge me as evil.

But what if the methods and the ends sprang from identical motives? That would never happen, however, because strongmen always have another, reprehensible motive. Megalomania? Racialist supremacy? These would creep out later. But if they did not, then observers would simply see more bad methods, not evil.

The mixture of motives-method is bad for reason A, motive is bad for reason B, implies a detailed knowledge of motives usually lacking in real life. If I, the authoritarian dictator, am regarded as defender of you and yours, you'll accept it with patience when I screw up; when my goons beat up my critics, or expropriate private property. If I lose that trust, then my power is terrifying, not reassuring. This should be trivial; but please observe it is an entirely secular description of evil.

Finally, I would like to close on the note of a brilliant remark by a visitor to this site. I had written the following:

Secular society eventually rejected the idea of a "devil" because unhappiness was seen to not originate in a point-singularity; "evil spirits" didn't contribute to understanding crop failure, but knowledge of drainage or pests did. I recommend doing the same thing with countries.
Conrad Barwa, in comments, objected:
I find this highly idealised; secular societies did not give up the idea of the devil it was simply displaced. Go back to what I said about the extremist forms of fantasmastic politics and dis-enchanment of the public sphere these are Weberian ideas; most scholars argue that Communism, Fascism etc are nothing more than a secularised religion—a “return of the repressed” to used Freud’s terminology. To think that the devil can be banished is the height of Enlightenment optimism....
Conrad was obviously correct. I groaned when I read that because I had made my point above as a rhetorical oversimplication; of course I knew that belief in a devil persisted. Ironically, it was the whole thing I was complaining about.

UPDATE (Wednesday): The sentences above were confusing:

Now, suppose it turns out my motives were to seize the oil resources of the Persian Gulf for control of my cronies; had I achieved the same through constitutional means, my ultimate motive would be reprensible
This is a logical impossibility. Allow me to elaborate: suppose GWB were actually a very smooth Europeanist who had won the heartfelt trust of both the Russians and the French. He does what I would have done after 9/11, were I able: he consummates a rapprochement with Iran, and let us suppose the leadership is grateful. Suppose, finally, that, by heroic efforts in conjunction with Moscow, Paris, Amman, and Damascus, Pres. Bush had revived the peace process long before 9/11/01 and stuns the Arab world with his sympathetic responses to the Palestinian plight. (This might have been impossible, but suppose it weren't). When Bush moves against Iraq constitutionally, on the basis of UN SC resolutions, he receives an emphatically friendly hearing from other members, who each have strong motives for cooperating. In some places, as US forces mass on the border with Iraq, there is grumbling about American imperialism-accurate grumbling-but lo! it is imperialism with a UNSCR imprimatur. In the capitals of Europe, anti-war opposition is directed isotropically against the local government, not against Washington or London. The methods are legitimate, yes?

No. Instead, the perpetrator-the moral agent committing the crime-is bigger. The internal mechanisms are harmonious, just as they were inside the corridors of power in Washington. Legitimate means, diabolical motives, are essentially a logical contradiction. Apparent exceptions merely misidentify the perpetrator of evil. In reality, it was a clique of national executives; in my counterfactual, unilateralism is merely replaced by a bigger clique.

SECOND SENTENCE: This sentence is also confusing where it appears:

But in this counterfactual, in either case I used extralegal methods to silence my opponents.
In other words, I suggested two different hypothetical scenarios where I seize power in a coup and use illegitimate means to control the state. In the first, it's to do something benevolent; in the second, something malignant, but different from merely maintaining power. I suppose it's logically possible for, say, a junta to use draconian measures to stay in power-with no other motive, not even corruption or class affinity-but self perpetuation. This is improbable, though, and I doubt it's ever happened.

UPDATE2: In comments below, Mr. Halasz mentions that motives are usually mixed and unknowable. In the case of a junta, especially a falangist junta, this is very clear. One of my objections to A People's History of the United States, by Howard Zinn, is that even when he admits a certain act was necessary—e.g., defending post-war Europe against Soviet expansionism—he insists the motives of the USA were malignant: the elites running the country were afraid of Communism because it offered a hopeful alternative to the worker, not because it was a totalitarian and aggressive ideology (although he admits it was). This is bad history, not merely easy-answer jacobinism.

Since even individuals, let alone national governments, always act with mixed motives (and while that does pose a philosophical challenge that merits examination), there's no way I could suggest a reliable way of arbitrating amongst a host of known motives.


NOTE: 1 Appeals to history insist that the speaker's adversaries don't know basic facts, such as the "fact" that the USA alone stood up to Nazi Germany and thereby taught Europe a lesson about resolve. This is something the listener presumably "knows," knowledge shared with the speaker. But this is absurd; how could an American have never heard of this version of history? Television programs and movies about the War nearly always reiterate it. Newspaper editorials iterate it. The answer is that it's doctrinal-an article of faith. People who contradict this nonsensical drivel aren't supposed to be so much ignorant as heretics—the fool who has said in his heart that something he's been taught since infancy is not so.

It would appear that this is argued more frequently yet with economics. In high school, like all AP students, I was taught about the laws of supply of supply and demand. In courses taken since then, that touched on economics, I was again and again exposed to the basic principles of a self-correcting market economy. The notion that the economy is a self-correcting market is referred to endless by conservative web loggers, newspaper columnists, et al., as "Economics 101" as if that meant there were nothing else to know about the subject. People who suggest things like imperfect competition, game theory, elasticity, trade theory, or welfare economics, are obviously ignoring "Economics 101" and necessarily idiots. Does the minimum wage hurt poor people? Econ 101 says it does. Economics you take afterwards—or research in other fields—suggests the picture is more complicated.

Economics is not physics, but I'm going to make an analogy: "Physics 101" says objects put in motion tend to remain in motion. Friction comes later. Angle of moment comes later. Air resistance comes later. Inelastic collisions come later. All of these things appear to contradict what is taught in "Physics 101" about the block sliding on a frictionless plane forever after you push it. Economics can be an evolutionary science, if students are allowed to relax initial assumptions made for ease in exposition.

Comments on this Post:
I'm not exactly sure what you trying to get at here, except to make the obvious point against villifying hypostatized collective entities. But I don't think your intentionalist definition of evil, based on a distinction between intention and motive and thus underplaying the reality and consequentiality of acts, would quite do. Motives are a) always mixed, and b) essentially inferential notions, not strictly and clearly identifiable, as such, and thus subject to speculation, while intentions,- (pace Kant?)- can not be strictly separated from acts and consequences without losing their status as intentions. Just to go back to the pre-modern sources, in Dante, sins of fraud are deemed worse than sins of anger and violence; hence the ultimate evil is attained when anger and violence, with all their destructive implications, are yoked and subordinated to fraud, to the point of utter treachery. (Granted, this account presumed the pure "truth" of Christian dogma.) Secularizing the matter, I would say that ultimate evil involves a project for the obliteration and extermination of otherness, since the other is the condition for both a) openness to the world, and b) access to humanity, in all its finitude. The Nazi genocide was not simply evil because it involved the murder of millions of humans; beyond that, it amounted to a project to progressively retract the very existence of those others. This is what the survivors, to their detriment, could never concretely express, since it defies all intentional vocabulary. As an entirely secular person, I have no trouble with the notion of evil, as with "there is a touch of evil in us all." (Yes, a variant of "original sin".) But what is greatly to be feared is not just the possibility of evil, but also the paramount fear of evil itself, since, in an world that is inevitably corrupt and ridden with evils, any truly ethical act, that is, any act aiming at tranformative change with a view to a "higher" good for humanity in the world, must also be "evil", that is, involve the displacement of others, (as well as, of oneself.) Such a fear of evil relinquishes any possibility of good, in the name of the impossibility of ridding the world of the possibility of evil. Perhaps that is what you were trying to get at, in stigmatizing the "infantilism"/narcissism of some representitives of what you perceive as leftism. I don't know.

Posted by: john c. halasz at July 22, 2004 03:30 AM

Just to go back to the pre-modern sources, in Dante, sins of fraud are deemed worse than sins of anger and violence; hence the ultimate evil is attained when anger and violence, with all their destructive implications, are yoked and subordinated to fraud, to the point of utter treachery.

That is what I'm getting at here. For example, take fraud: the grifter lies (bad method; motive--to deceive); but if I lie to you and tell you I live in Honolulu, you may be annoyed if you learn the truth--but it's hardly evil if you're totally unaffected by the deception, as indeed you would be. The purpose of lying, viz., to steal or injure, is something different that makes it evil.

Betrayal was/is regarded as a worse evil because it involves a greater reversal of motive, in my opinion.

It must be admitted that the evil done by heads of state is a more exotic topic. Perhaps more common is sins of omission by public institutions--failure of our state to fulfill its statutory obligation to suppress the slave trade ("to combat a manifest evil," in the words of WEB Dubois), or the way in which public functionaries "fight crime" (where the appearance of "toughness" crowds out genuinely effective methods; and an underclass goes through hell).

In this case, the criminal justice systems (CJS) are a passive constituency of the political system; the political system serves it by avoiding reform--thereby refusing to hold the CJS accountable. This is bad. If we confirm that the motive is significantly different and also malignant (to perpetuate white power, for example) then it is evil. Conversely, the "2nd motive" under examination could be limited agency--it's impossible for the political system to act cohesively, or so difficult as to be intermittantly impossible. Sinning because you cannot avoid it is not really a sin; and if it is to avoid an unbearable expense, than you're responding to a Hobson's choice.

Genocide or democide are extreme cases of evil; there can be no exculpatory motive for murdering large number of people. This second point is so obvious as to seem trivial; and yet for decades we sat on the edge of nuclear war, and I recall vividly that those who challenged the morality of this were accused of being "Communist sympathizers." Seriously. And I was, may God forgive me, an enabler because I usually thought the slur was merited.

Posted by: James R MacLean at July 22, 2004 06:41 AM